Here is a question.

[Dok]

So if I want to do a decoction and I want to use a less modified 2 row. Does adding a portion of unmalted barley to my grain bill to get the same effect as an under modified 2 row?

 

[nyga0082]

I was under the impression that decoction helped negate the effects of under-modified malts, but wouldn't cause any problems with fully-modified ones. I'd be inclined to think that you'll have no problem decocting full-modified 2 Row.

 

[biochemedic]

It sounds like your asking whether [modern, well modified 2-row] + [unmalted barley] = [old fashioned, less modified 2-row]. If so, I have no idea...sorry. Still, it begs the question: why? Is this for some sort of historical accuracy you're going for?

 

[Dok]

It sounds like your asking whether [modern, well modified 2-row] + [unmalted barley] = [old fashioned, less modified 2-row]. If so, I have no idea...sorry. Still, it begs the question: why? Is this for some sort of historical accuracy you're going for?

Yes, that is what I am asking. Under modified malts are available but I was just curious if it would do.

 

[biochemedic]

I guess what underscores the question is whether or not there's any other difference between the malts besides the amount of enzyme and the availability of the starches/sugars...again, unfortunately, I have no real answer. Hopefully someone more knowledgeable about grains and the malting process can weigh in here...

Still, why the question in the first place? As nyga0082 mentioned, there is no reason why you can't use modern highly modified malts in a decoction process...historically, though decoction was a means to deal with the issues created by less-modified grains...