reverseapachemaster1
Well-Known Member
Of course it's normal to pay more than post-financing book value per share. Book value is an accounting term, not a measure of how much the equity is worth, and it has nothing to do with the distinction between tangible book value and overall book value.
Here's a simple example. Suppose Shaun Hill starts a brewery and forms a corporation where he owns all 50 shares of stock. He's going to run the brewery, and he starts the company off with an injection of $100. At that point, the book value is $100, or $2/share. Then he offers to issue an additional 50 shares to the public (which dilutes his ownership stake to 50%) and JulianB buys those shares at a price of $50 each, because he knows that Shaun Hill is a genius and the company is going to be immensely profitable. After that offering, the company has 100 shares outstanding; a total book value of $100+$50*50 = $2,600; and a book value per share of $26.
The fact that JulianB purchased at more than the post-offering book value per share is totally normal and does not represent an instant devaulation for anyone. The fact that JulianB purchased his shares at $50 does not magically make the book value of all shares equal to $50.
This works if you don't count goodwill as part of book value, which more precisely makes it tangible book value.