Hi, i have been malting my own barley for 2-3 months now. I came to understand that since its undermodified, it does not have enough diastatic power to convert itself. Does this also mean that it has less starches to be converted and therefore lower yield;
Also if the malt i buy has enough diastatic power to convert 2 times the amound i use, is it safe to assume that i would get the same yield by using 4 kilos bought malt or 2 kilos of bought malt + 2 kilos of barley? This would have a large impact on flavor profile ?
Also if the malt i buy has enough diastatic power to convert 2 times the amound i use, is it safe to assume that i would get the same yield by using 4 kilos bought malt or 2 kilos of bought malt + 2 kilos of barley? This would have a large impact on flavor profile ?