You lost me at Maths.
"Mathematics (from Greek μάθημα máthēma, knowledge, study, learning), often shortened to maths or math, is the study of..."
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mathematics
You lost me at Maths.
"Mathematics (from Greek μάθημα máthēma, knowledge, study, learning), often shortened to maths or math, is the study of..."
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mathematics
I'd like to hear your explanation.
Think of a literal deck of cards. Even if you pull multiple cards at one time (the top 10 cards in the deck, for example), it's basically the same as pulling them one after the other (and not replacing them after). So, after each pull, the total number of cards decreases.
Most statisticians will simply reduce 45/2880 to 1/64 without a 2nd thought, but I tend to differ. For example, look at Poisson's theories.
I've the lucky avatar.
I are winner.
.
And you posted this at 4:20pm on 4/20, which means you super high!:fro:
Not quite. I'm on CST.![]()
If you're married, you're right in thinking that you're never right, and the odds that you're not right don't rightly add up no matter the rightness. Then again, I've been known to be wrong.
Not quite. I'm on CST.![]()
I are not the winner![]()
Ok. Stay with me. This article has a pretty good explanation
http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/91998/probability-of-winning-a-prize-in-a-raffle
I'm using the easier equation, the one that says 'assume that the prizes are drawn with replacement'
In that case, the math is based on the probabiity of losing, as in, you have 2779/2880 chance of losing the first drawing. Over 45 drawings, it approximates to -> P-loss = (2779/2880)^45 = 0.9845
We all have a 98.5% chance of losing! yaaaaay. Probability of winning is (1-0.9845)*100 = 1.55%
How close is this to the initial 1/64?
1/64 = 0.0156 .......or, very very close.
I'm a university math professor and I approve the above post. Well done.