homebrewer_99
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So, let's say I want to brew an IPA soon, but its too cold to brew on the bayou burner/turkey frier, thus I'm restricted to a kitchen range (glass, electric top). I have trouble boiling 1.5g on this thing sometime...
My question is this. With a full boil, I may be able to draft up a good IPA using 4-6oz. of hops total (1-2oz. high alpha bittering, 1-2oz. flavor/flameout, 1-2oz. dryhop).
However, with a 1.0 - 1.5g boil and the (majorly) decreased utilization, this will drive my need for hops up to probably 10oz. or so. Obviously this makes brewing the IPA more expensive, but if I don't mind the increased cost of hops, is it possible to do an IPA with such a small boil?!
I'm wondering if there is a point where normal hop utilization theory goes out the window and you just can't get anymore hop bitterness into the water with such a small boil. If I can do an IPA with 1.0-1.5g boil, I know I'll basically need to double (or triple) the bittering and flavor hops to get the required IBU (I have beersmith so conversion is easy), but is it even possible?
I disagree with many comments about full boils versus small boils and hop utilization. Hop utilization is really a factor of the worts density, which is relative to malt to water ratio.
Checking Papazian's TCJOHB Hop Utilization Chart recommends 1 gal of water and 1 lb of DME equalling approximately 1.040. BYO uses 1.045.
Keeping along those lines, if you boil 2 gals of water and use 2 lbs of DME is the same. Most of the time I use 1.5-2 gals for my boils and use as little as 3% AA for a bacth of sweet-side Hefe Weizen...more for pale ales etc., but I'm not really a hop head.