Berliner-weisse - no-boil vs. pils malt?

[Auger]

I'm a little confused (but what else is new). Many of the recipes for berliner-weisse I'm finding call for a no-boil wort - only heating to 180 then chilling and pitching whatever. But, per the BJCP guidelines, traditionally the grain bill is 50/50 wheat and pils malt. On top of that, it specifically calls out no DMS character.

I've only brewed with pils malt once so maybe I'm being too worrisome, but the combination of pils malt and no-boil seems like not a great combination in the quest to avoid DMS. Is there something else going on that I'm missing? It just seems that the prevailing wisdom for using pils malt is "must do 90min boil to avoid DMS off-flavors".

 

[youreanimpulse]

Boiling (well, being above 180) creates SMM which turns into DMS unless boiled off. Of course someone correct me if I'm wrong. I'm really sensitive to DMS and I've done a few no boils without issue.

 

[14thstreet]

Of the two berliners I've made, I boiled maybe 20 minutes tops. Each had at least 50% pils. These beers did not have notes of DMS (one was judged in a large competition). I'm tending to believe that DMS is not much a concern on the homebrew level as it is for professionals and the scale they brew on. The surface area to volume ratio of our boils (or nonboils) are relatively large that any DMS that forms has little chance to remain in your beer. Berliners also do not contain a lot of malt so this also helps. Please read this interesting article https://byo.com/hops/item/2816-better-boils-adding-body-mr-wizard

What I'd like see comment about is I've heard that no-boils tend to preserve the doughy nature of the malt (perhaps desirable in Berliners) whereas boiling removes/reduces this quality.