palecricket1
Member
- Joined
- Aug 17, 2005
- Messages
- 12
- Reaction score
- 0
I'm wanting to make a batch of kvass, and I have wheat flour that already contains malted barley flour in it. My question is this: since there is malt in this, if I were to mash this like I would regular grain (taking into account the fact that this is exponentially finer than grain), would I get a sufficient conversion of starch into sugar that I would not have to add sugar to the kvass?