I've just read on some forums that the standard conventions and calculations regarding hops utilisation as a factor of BG might actually be wrong. i.e. BG has no effect on hops utilisation
A search on this forum shows that it's been discussed here too - https://www.homebrewtalk.com/f37/late-addition-hop-utilization-188394/#post2186025
What has me baffled is, if this is true, how could this have gone unnoticed for so long? Tools like BeerSmith, which so many brewers rely on, would guide brewers to use much more hops if they are boiling all their extract in a portion of the water. Wouldn't all these brewers have noticed that their beers are overly hoppy?
Just wondering what's your own personal experiences on this?
A search on this forum shows that it's been discussed here too - https://www.homebrewtalk.com/f37/late-addition-hop-utilization-188394/#post2186025
What has me baffled is, if this is true, how could this have gone unnoticed for so long? Tools like BeerSmith, which so many brewers rely on, would guide brewers to use much more hops if they are boiling all their extract in a portion of the water. Wouldn't all these brewers have noticed that their beers are overly hoppy?
Just wondering what's your own personal experiences on this?