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Old 01-12-2007, 11:32 PM   #1
Brewing Clamper
 
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The last batch that I brew was a pale ale that had a couple of lbs of grain for steeping. Instead of steeping I decided for some unknown reason to dump the grain in my 2gl MLT and mash it for 45min @ 155F then sparge with 170F water. So I'm wondering, since the grain (mostly crystal) didn't need to mash, did I get the same general effect from it? The OG was pretty much what I expected and what I have gotten in the past just steeping.
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Old 01-12-2007, 11:57 PM   #2
johnsma22
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If the grains that you used were not base malts, but specialty grains then you did in fact steep and not mash. Mashing is the process by which enzymes in the base malts, when exposed to the correct temperatures for the correct amount of time, convert the starches into fermentable sugars.

Steeping specialty grains will only result in the extraction of the grain's colors and flavors. No starch conversion is taking place, and there is little to no fermentable sugars extracted.

John

 
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Old 01-13-2007, 01:04 AM   #3
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Specialty grains, like crystal, have been roasted to the point there are no conversion enzymes present. If you had some 2-row, pilsner or other base malt in the mix, you would have seen a higher OG.
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Old 01-13-2007, 02:29 AM   #4
Brewing Clamper
 
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Ah, got it... thanks!
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Old 01-13-2007, 03:41 AM   #5
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But you got a good practice run
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