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Old 10-19-2009, 09:04 PM   #1
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Default pLambics + aged hops

(I'm posting this here because I'm pretty sure I already know the answer I'll get in the other sub-forums)

What is the modern justification for continuing to use aged hops in homebrewed lambics?

I know that's how it is done traditionally. I know that a lambic is not supposed to have hop aroma, flavor or bitterness. I know that you still need hops to act as a preservative.

My question is: why use massive quantities of aged hops? No other sour beer I know of does this. Most sours are hopped to 10 IBUs or less- below the level of human perception, but still high enough to act as a preservative.

Is there an actual reason besides an appeal to tradition?

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Old 10-25-2009, 01:27 PM   #2
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I think it is done for historical reasons, though I'm eager to try aged hops, because I find my sours are lacking complexity, and I'm hoping the cheesiness of aged hops will help.
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Old 10-25-2009, 09:50 PM   #3
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We had a thread on this in the wild forum a bit ago:

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