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Old 07-31-2009, 03:31 AM   #1
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What is the conversion of malted grain to flaked grain? I asume you can convert grain to flaked grain, or is there a diference between them. I have plenty of whole grain wheat and rye, but most recipes I see call for flaked.

 
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Old 07-31-2009, 03:37 AM   #2
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there is a difference - malted grain has gone through the malting process whereby the grain is allowed to germinate thus producing the enzymes needed to convert starch to fermentable sugar and then the germination process is halted.

Flaked grains have been steamed and rolled. This process gelatinizes them - sort of a pre-cooking - which makes the starches more accessible, but flaked grains are not malted so do not have the necessary enzymes to convert starch to sugars.

If you have non-malted whole grain wheat or rye and want to use them instead of flaked you will first need to gelatinize them before adding them to the mash. This essentially involves boiling them in some water for an hour or so. I've never done this so I can't provide more details.
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Old 07-31-2009, 12:55 PM   #3
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Thanks, what about the weight in a recipe. If the recipe calls for 1lb of flaked, say wheat, how much whole grain wheat should I use?

 
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Old 07-31-2009, 02:00 PM   #4
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Use the same weight.
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Old 07-31-2009, 03:54 PM   #5
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Thanks guys

 
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Old 07-31-2009, 04:12 PM   #6
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Soperbrew and I talked of this yesterday in chat. I mentioned that I was told by Denny that wheat gelitinizes at mash temps, so a cereal mash is not required. He googgled it and found the temp required is in the low 140's, IIRC-easily within any mash schedule.

I read somewhere that the gelitinization is what makes the starches water soluble, but I do not remember where I saw this.

To convert the starches however, a diastatic grain bill must be used, as in it containing 2 row or similar base grain.
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