Suppose we have two beers with the same attenuation percentage and the same percentage of fermentable and unfermentable sugars:
Beer #1:
Beer #2:
Let's also assume that 25% of the remaining extract is either unfermented fermentable extract, left over by the yeast, and 25% is unfermentable sugars (which add sweetness), and the remaining 50% is dextrins and other non-sweetening substances.
Would both beers have the same level of perceived sweetness, or would one seem drier than the other? One beer has a far higher percentage of alcohol than the other, but it also has a quantitatively greater AMOUNT (but not percentage) of residual sugar. Is the characteristic of "dryness" influenced more by residual sugars or by the percentage of alcohol?
Beer #1:
OG: 1.100
FG: 1.023.
Residual Extract: 1.037
Attenuation Percentage: 75%
Alcohol by volume: 10.28%
FG: 1.023.
Residual Extract: 1.037
Attenuation Percentage: 75%
Alcohol by volume: 10.28%
Beer #2:
OG: 1.050
FG: 1.012.
Residual Extract: 1.019
Attenuation Percentage: 75%
Alcohol by volume: 5.0%
FG: 1.012.
Residual Extract: 1.019
Attenuation Percentage: 75%
Alcohol by volume: 5.0%
Let's also assume that 25% of the remaining extract is either unfermented fermentable extract, left over by the yeast, and 25% is unfermentable sugars (which add sweetness), and the remaining 50% is dextrins and other non-sweetening substances.
Would both beers have the same level of perceived sweetness, or would one seem drier than the other? One beer has a far higher percentage of alcohol than the other, but it also has a quantitatively greater AMOUNT (but not percentage) of residual sugar. Is the characteristic of "dryness" influenced more by residual sugars or by the percentage of alcohol?